[BlueBear]

I believe it's not that simple.

For example, when you draw to a flush at the turn, in calculating the probabilities the flush will fill, there is the effect of the unknown hole cards of the opponent, as the opponent is somewhat more likelier to hold another (or two) other flush cards. Eg. you hold Ad Qd, board is 5d 7d 8d 2c, and your opponent does call all the way the river, he will do so more often holding another diamond, eg. Kd. This reduces the number of flushing outs in the river.

I believe if a study is conducted to compute the fraction of flush draws that hit without making the above considerations, something will seem amiss.

Any statistic experts care to comment on my possibility faulty logic?