Hello,Mathematicians! How\'s My thinking On this one??
Let's assume that I "read" my opponent as having one of the following hands: i(i=1,N). Assume that the probability of winning with each of his hand respectively is Wi.
Then the probability of his winning with one of the "N" hands is (1/N)(SUM(Wi))
Any flaws in my thinking?? [img]/forums/images/icons/shocked.gif[/img]
Just wondering,
SittingBull
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