Re: Need some help with drawing odds
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This situation has come up often enough that I am wondering if I am thinking incorrectly about it.
Say I am in a game of hold'em with AKo and Villian has K2o.
The flop is K98 rainbow.
If Villian bets and I just call, am I giving him infinite odds to draw to his two pair since I did not raise him?
Note: I understand that if I checked it through, I would be giving him infinite odds, but is calling his bet the same thing?
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You're opponent bet his hand for value. He voluntarily put money in the post, based on his/her assessment of the value of their hand.
Therefore, calling with the better hand and affording your opponent to not have to pay for his/her mistake, is giving your opponent infinite odds to the draw.
That does not mean it's wrong, as in this case, your opponent has only 3 outs to the deuce and you may be able to extract more money by raising the turn.
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