Re: Another interpretation - classic problem
Right. It is interesting that the golden ratio (or its
inverse) appears here! I see that for a player to have at
some time not won at least 1/k of the hands where k is an
integer >=2, the probability is the solution to
p = 1/2 + (1/2)*p**k
but is that also true for k that is any real number >2?
Nevetheless, good answer to the post as I agree that you
answered the question that was probably asked.
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