[deception5]

Hi all,

A friend of mine had a hand where he was dealt A [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]K [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. The board came up 9 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]8 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]9 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. The opponent had T [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] and we thought he was the favorite because of his 14 outs (T [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] not helping him).

Unfortunately we could not seem to figure out his chance of winning in a way that matched what twodimes said (48.38%).

My thought was 100%-(2 cards which don't help him)-(one card that helps him/one card that kills him(a ten))-(second card that helps him/first card kills him(ten)) or:

1-(31/45*30/44)-(2/45*14/44)-(14/45*2/44)=50.2%

Any idea where I am going wrong?

Thanks!