[pudley4]

</font><blockquote><font class="small">In reply to:</font><hr />
Can we safely assume that the pre-flop fold did not have AA??

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Can we safely assume he didn't have KK too? Ok, so a K is now 3/49 instead of 3/50.

But what about QQ? Or JJ? Or even 22? In fact, in a 3-handed game, since a pocket pair is a strong hand, can't we "safely" assume he didn't have any pair? So by your logic, any card (other than A or K) would have 4/49 odds. But there are 50 unknown cards - where did the extra card go?

Also note that your other opponent already has 77, so really you should have stated the remaining number of cards as 48 (or 47) as opposed to 50 (or 49).