You just have to love your persistence. Suppose I agree that 7's are more likely to be folded than Aces. Now what? You are implying that aces are more likely to be dealt than 7's which I cannot agree with. In fact in your 3 person example where you have an ace in your hand and your opponnent has 7's it makes it less likely that an ace is dealt not more. I agree noone is likely to fold AA but this means nothing. Below is why:
<pre><font class="small">code:</font><hr>
Hands containing an ace that will probably fold:
A2o A3o A4o A5o A6o A7o A8o A9o A6s A7s A8s A9s
Hands containing an ace that will probably call:
A2s A3s A4s A5s AJo AQo AKs ATs AJs AQs AKs AA
The one hand that may go either way:
ATo
</pre><hr>
Now count the possible numbers of Ax hands that will be folded and the number of Ax hands that will call. Do you see a trend here? If so you should now know one reason why your theory is unsound other than being a mathmatical fallacy in and of itself.