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To get the probability of having an individual hand over 50% likely, I believe you'll need 117 hands (=BINOMDIST(0,116,1/169,FALSE or just 168/169^X < .5). The math beyond that should be straightforward.

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Accounting for suit, there are 1326 possible pre-flop hands, which should occur with equal distribution. There are four of each suited hand, six of each pair, and 15 of each other unsuited hand.

The least likely of these hands occurs 2 in 663 times, so we're looking at (661/663)^n < whatever, which means that you need significantly more hands (about 528 for a 50% chance to get a particular suited hand).