[Festus22]

I know the numbers aren't exact but it's what I've been using and I'd like someone to confirm.

If a pair flops, there's roughly an 8% chance per opponent that someone will have made trips (assuming you don't have one of course). Considering what the pair is, I may adjust this down for something like a Q-4-4 flop but the 8% per opponent would be the max %. Close enough?

When considering the likelihood of someone matching one card (like when I'm holding K-K and an ace flops), I use 11% per opponent. Again, is this close enough for government work?

Thanks!