[Agrubbyone]

hi all I'm new to poker and odds and such. I just picked up sklanskys hold em poker and also lee jones winning no limit poker. I'm trying to figure out how they came up with the odds using material from both books. the puzzling thing to me is how sklansky came up with the %'s he did with the odds he gives in his example on page 106.
With 9 outs, he gives 38:9 (which i understand) but he gives this 35% chance to win. Should this not be 24%? or perhaps if I'm wrong again then maybe 19%?

The reason why I ask is that he goes down to show how to change the % to odds. If you use his forumla given on the bottom of page 106 and going back to our previous example. if you subtrace 35 from 100 and dived that sum by 35 I get 1.9 : 1 odds. Which to me does not equal 38:9 or 4.2:1. Am I smoking crack or just stupid as hell or both by thinking there is something missing or not cottect in Sklanskys calculations on page 106 and 107?

Thanks for any insight and help in sorting my confusion. I'm to the point now where I want to start using pot odds along with my play but I'm afraid to go into it unsure on how to really use them.
Thanks
Matthew