[Jonny1723]

This was a $2 Single Table Tournament, First Hand. (Blinds 10/20)

Bet365 Tournament (10 handed)

Preflop: Hero is BB with 8 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 8 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] .
UTG Calls, UTG+1 Calls, UTG+2 Folds, MP1 Calls, MP2 Calls, MP3 Calls, LP Calls, CO Calls, SB Calls, Hero Calls.

Flop: (180 Chips) 8 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], A [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 6 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (9 players)
SB Bets 20, Hero Raises 160, UTG+1 Folds, MP1 Raises to 980 (All In), MP2 Folds, MP3 Folds, LP Folds, CO Folds, SB Folds, Hero Calls (All In).

[When MP1 Raised me all in, I thought AA unlikely due to no preflop raise, although he may have been limping and spiked his set. However, I actually thought he may have had A6 for a flopped two pair].

Turn: (2160 Chips) 2 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (2 players)

River: (2160 Chips) 4 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (3 players)

My question is, should I have called the All in on the first hand with my set ?

Cheers

J.