thanks...follow up
What still doesnt make sense, is that the other player's 16% chance of making his hand only lowers my odds by about 3%? Can you explain that? I thought that it would make more sense to calculate the odds by multiplying 35% (or 36.4% which represent the odds of making my hand) by 84% (the odds that the other player doesnt make his hand) for a total chance of 29% to win. Why is my calcualation wrong? What logic am I missing?
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