Need some help with drawing odds
This situation has come up often enough that I am wondering if I am thinking incorrectly about it.
Say I am in a game of hold'em with AKo and Villian has K2o.
The flop is K98 rainbow.
If Villian bets and I just call, am I giving him infinite odds to draw to his two pair since I did not raise him?
Note: I understand that if I checked it through, I would be giving him infinite odds, but is calling his bet the same thing?
THANKS!
|