Thanks,Erchins! You\'ve answered...
my question.
But a question on "independence".
Let's assume the board is:
x x Q 4
U have: QQ
Your opponent has: 44
If the board pairs with another 4,U have a full-house,but the 4 helped your opponent to obtain quads.
Are these two events "independent"? and does the formula
p=p1(1-p2) still apply? If U don't have "independence",then how would U modify the formula to allow for "dependence"??
Just wondering,
Happy pokering
Sitting Bull
|