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View Full Version : POT ODDs/Implied ODDs/ etc


theKGBwins
06-29-2004, 11:50 PM
Could someone give me the rundown on POT ODDS and/or Implied Odds.
<font color="black"> </font> (ex. "The pot odds are giving you 3-1..") &lt;--what does this mean???

blackaces13
06-30-2004, 12:01 AM
[ QUOTE ]
(ex. "The pot odds are giving you 3-1..") &lt;--what does this mean???

[/ QUOTE ]

The answer to this particular question is that the pot is 3 times larger than the bet you must call to continue the hand. Also, this counts any and all bets which have been made on the current betting round.

Example: Texas hold 'em on the flop: The pot contains 2 small bets and your lone opponent bets into you. you now have immediate pot odds of 3:1.

stripsqueez
06-30-2004, 12:14 AM
pot odds are the odds offered by the money currently in the pot when you have to put money in - ie if your the big blind in a 1/2 holdem game - the first guy to act raises - 1 other person calls - the small blind folds - there is $5.50 in the pot and it costs you $1 to call - your pot odds are 5.5/1

now say you have 44 on this hand - you are unlikely to win unless a 4 hits and the odds of a 4 hitting on the flop is about 7.5/1 - this suggests that you shouldnt call because your not getting sufficent odds to do so

this is where implied odds are commonly discussed - it is definately right to call when you have 44 in this spot and the reason its right is because your implied odds in conjunction with the pot odds are sufficent - implied odds in this context is the expectation of more money going into the pot from the other players if a 4 does hit - to demystify the expression further you could say that your expectation of additional money you will win if a 4 is contained in the flop means that the odds you are recieving are higher than the pot odds such that calling becomes a profitable proposition

stripsqueez - chickenhawk

Kurn, son of Mogh
06-30-2004, 06:04 AM
Pot Odds - refers to how much money is currently in the pot compared to how much you have to put in the pot call.

Implied odds - refers to additional bets you will make on later streets if you make your hand.

Effective odds - refers to an adjustment you may have to make to pot odds if your call does not close the action and there is a potential for another raise and reraise behind you.

TPL
06-30-2004, 10:08 AM
I understand how to use the rule of 4 and rule of 2 to calculate the approximate probability of a single card hitting on the turn or the river, respectively. But, I was wondering if there is a similar simple calculation I can do for calculating odds or probability of hitting a card on the flop?

For instance, I have no clue how you know that it's 7.5/1 of hitting the 4 when holding 44. Just wondering if this is a calculation I can do in my head.

Thanks,

TPL

stripsqueez
06-30-2004, 10:24 AM
i dont know what the rule of 4 and 2 is but i'd be interested to know

i dont know a particular method of calculating the 7.5/1 - its easy enough - 2 fours in the remaining 50 cards and 3 chances to hit it - seems like about 6 chances in 49 - close to 8/1 and then add a bit for the times you hit both of them ? - something like that

stripsqueez - chickenhawk

theKGBwins
06-30-2004, 07:45 PM
So the pot odds are 5.5-1, but the odds of a 4 hitting are 7.1-1. --&gt; These odds arent good, so what would the odds have to be to make the call? 5.5-1 or better?

theKGBwins
06-30-2004, 07:52 PM
IF there were 2 fours left, that would make the odds 50 - 2.(50 cards left in deck). Simplify and its 25-1. 3 chances to it, that would be 1/25 + 1/25 + 1/25, which = 3/25. So, wouldn't that make the odds to hit a Four on the flop 1/8.33???

Sadat X
07-01-2004, 02:24 PM
You should make this call with 44 in this situation because your implied odds are higher than 5.5-1. You are putting $1 in a pot that will probably win you over $15 in the end if you hit a set. If you miss the flop, you fold the hand right there only having lost a dollar, but having given yourself the chance to win much more.

PseudoPserious
07-06-2004, 11:55 AM
I won't comment on the rest of the math, but

1 / 8.3 =
1 out of every 8.3 times =
1 good time for every 7.3 bad times =
7.3:1 odds

Pot odds are usually expressed as odds (bad times:good times). The calculation you were doing was a percentage (good times / total times). It's pretty easy to convert between the two, but when comparing the numbers make sure you're comparing apples to apples (which is an outstanding party game, by the way).

PP

deacsoft
07-07-2004, 01:46 AM
Theory of Poker (TOP) by Sklansky.

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