RoyalSampler
06-29-2004, 09:09 PM
If I have A2d vs 78h since each has a 50% chance of a pair, this should be ~ 1:1.
If I have A7d vs 82h each has 50% chance of pair, but both hands might pair. The chance of two specific cards, one from each hand pairing should be the chance of two pair 3%. Since in 3 in these scenarios (A paired vs 8 paired, A paired vs 2 paired, 7 paired vs 2 paired) the lesser hand loses, I take 9% from 50% and come up with ~ 3:2 in favour of A7.
Using the same logic for A8d vs 72h we now take 4 * 3% from 50% and come up with 38:62 a little better than 3:2, not quite 2:1.
I specified the suits to rule out the flush, also I ignored the 87 having 3 times the straight chance in the first hand, but other than that are these fair approximations of common allin race scenarios? Taking account for each getting two pair seems to be getting down into the ~ 1% error range, which I don't care for.
Are these numbers close to the mark and the logic sound? Thanks
If I have A7d vs 82h each has 50% chance of pair, but both hands might pair. The chance of two specific cards, one from each hand pairing should be the chance of two pair 3%. Since in 3 in these scenarios (A paired vs 8 paired, A paired vs 2 paired, 7 paired vs 2 paired) the lesser hand loses, I take 9% from 50% and come up with ~ 3:2 in favour of A7.
Using the same logic for A8d vs 72h we now take 4 * 3% from 50% and come up with 38:62 a little better than 3:2, not quite 2:1.
I specified the suits to rule out the flush, also I ignored the 87 having 3 times the straight chance in the first hand, but other than that are these fair approximations of common allin race scenarios? Taking account for each getting two pair seems to be getting down into the ~ 1% error range, which I don't care for.
Are these numbers close to the mark and the logic sound? Thanks