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BradleyT
06-15-2004, 12:51 PM
If we have AA and our villian calls a raise for 17% of his stack - what is the best way to capitalize on his PF calling mistake? Assume a non-threatening board and a lower buy-in SnG (under $100+9) with 6-10 players left. You and him each have 1200 chips which is slightly over average.

Villian assumptions:
He'll call all in with overpair to the board (which you have beat)
He'll call all in with TPTK (AK on K hi flop, AQ on Q hi flop, etc..)
He'll call all in with TPGK (KQs on Q hi flop)
He'll call all in with a set

How do you capitalize on his PF violation of the 10% rule? Always push on flop?

37offsuit
06-15-2004, 01:29 PM
Three choices, raise a good amount, check raise, or try a min-raise to get him to come over the top of you, then blast him.

BradleyT
06-15-2004, 01:47 PM
[ QUOTE ]
Three choices, raise a good amount, check raise, or try a min-raise to get him to come over the top of you, then blast him.

[/ QUOTE ]

Those aren't the correct answers.

37offsuit
06-15-2004, 02:53 PM
Your question is incomplete. You haven't given blind size or position.

Violation of the 10% rule? If you're going to play strictly by a set of rules, learn how to program, create a bot and save your time for sipping lemonade in the shade.

BradleyT
06-15-2004, 03:04 PM
[ QUOTE ]
If you're going to play strictly by a set of rules

[/ QUOTE ]

So there's nothing wrong with calling 1/2 to 3/4 to 100% of your stack pre-flop when you put your opponent on a larger pocket pair?

37offsuit
06-15-2004, 03:43 PM
First of all, 17% of my stack is not 1/2, 3/4 or 100% of my stack.

There are a lot of hands that I'll play for 17% of my stack on the Button or from the SB or BB, depending on a lot of other factors.

Even for 1/2, 3/4 or 100% of my stack there are hands I'll play if I suspect my opponent has a large pocket pair.

Every play I make is situation dependent and takes into consideration stack sizes of those who are in, those who are yet to act, along with the tendencies of those players, my table image, my position and where in the tournament I'm at.

M.B.E.
06-15-2004, 04:15 PM
Bet 2/3 the pot.

DeadWallet
06-15-2004, 05:19 PM
I tried searching, but cant find any mention of a 10% rule outside of this thread.

Anyone know what this is a reference to?

thanks

Hood
06-15-2004, 06:05 PM
[ QUOTE ]
I tried searching, but cant find any mention of a 10% rule outside of this thread.

Anyone know what this is a reference to?

thanks

[/ QUOTE ]

I think it's based on the rule that you can limp to 5% of your stack, and should fold 10% or more - 5-10% being the 'grey' area where other factors should be used. I *think* I first read it in a McEvoy book (though being on a 2+2 forum I may be wrong here).

UMTerp
06-15-2004, 06:23 PM
I'm pretty sure it's in the Ciaffone/Reuben NLHE book.

Nemesis
06-15-2004, 07:56 PM
It is... i just read about it the other day.

Hood
06-16-2004, 05:01 AM
[ QUOTE ]
If we have AA and our villian calls a raise for 17% of his stack - what is the best way to capitalize on his PF calling mistake? Assume a non-threatening board and a lower buy-in SnG (under $100+9) with 6-10 players left. You and him each have 1200 chips which is slightly over average.

Villian assumptions:
He'll call all in with overpair to the board (which you have beat)
He'll call all in with TPTK (AK on K hi flop, AQ on Q hi flop, etc..)
He'll call all in with TPGK (KQs on Q hi flop)
He'll call all in with a set

How do you capitalize on his PF violation of the 10% rule? Always push on flop?

[/ QUOTE ]

Will he call a 1/2 pot bet, or a 2/3s? What with? With draws?

Regardless, and I'm sure I'm falling for your 'trap' here, but I see no problem pushing on the flop every time. I haven't worked out the odds, but if he calls, you're going to have a better hand a large majority of the time.

This takes no notice of all that 'violation of the 10% rule' though.