10-04-2001, 05:01 PM
Premise: We are trying to maximize EV of a given hand (while this may not be the best premise, it's a good starting place).
Let's say that you can separate the EV on various rounds (this is just some weird theoretical devise). Then the EV on the hand is equal to the EV pre flop plus the EV on the other rounds.
You gain preflop EV any time you raise and you are going to win more than your "fair share" (= 1 / number of players), and you give up prelfop EV any time you raise and are going to win less than your "fair share."
Unfortunately the matter is not so simple as to raise when you're going to win more than your fair share and don't when you're not because the way you play your hand preflop will affect your EV on the other rounds.
My question is how raising preflop will affect postflop EV.
In a recent post, two players limped in and the 2+2er choose to limp on the button with A10o. In a game I played a week ago, three players limped in and I choose to limp on the button with AJo. My question is the following: how would raising have effected our EV from the flop on? Both of these examples come from the category of big unsuited cards, but other categories of hands are interesting to discuss as well.
Tommy Angelo and Andy Fox (excuse me if I am wrong) often say that they would raise with a lot of hands and give as their reason that they think the hand will play better from the flop on if they raise preflop (I will intepret this as meaning that they think their EV from the flop on will be higher). I choose to *limp* on the button with AJo for the same reason, because I thought it would make my hand play better from the flop on.
To put it another way...When I looked down and saw AJo, I thought that I was going to win more than my fair share, but I also thought that there existed a negative covariance between my preflop and postflop equity by raising. On the other hand, I think Tommy or Andy would probably argue that I could both gain preflop and postflop EV by raising, i.e. that there exists a positive covariance. This is an important difference IMO. If my view is right, then it's just a question (not that it's simple!) of finding the correct fulcrum. But if Tommy's and Andy's view is correct, then lots of hands should be raised and a fulcrum is an irrelevant concept (because nothing is being balanced--the factors are working in the same direction).
What do you all think?
-Dan
P.S. I apologize to Tommy and Andy if I incorrectly inferred their opinions.
Let's say that you can separate the EV on various rounds (this is just some weird theoretical devise). Then the EV on the hand is equal to the EV pre flop plus the EV on the other rounds.
You gain preflop EV any time you raise and you are going to win more than your "fair share" (= 1 / number of players), and you give up prelfop EV any time you raise and are going to win less than your "fair share."
Unfortunately the matter is not so simple as to raise when you're going to win more than your fair share and don't when you're not because the way you play your hand preflop will affect your EV on the other rounds.
My question is how raising preflop will affect postflop EV.
In a recent post, two players limped in and the 2+2er choose to limp on the button with A10o. In a game I played a week ago, three players limped in and I choose to limp on the button with AJo. My question is the following: how would raising have effected our EV from the flop on? Both of these examples come from the category of big unsuited cards, but other categories of hands are interesting to discuss as well.
Tommy Angelo and Andy Fox (excuse me if I am wrong) often say that they would raise with a lot of hands and give as their reason that they think the hand will play better from the flop on if they raise preflop (I will intepret this as meaning that they think their EV from the flop on will be higher). I choose to *limp* on the button with AJo for the same reason, because I thought it would make my hand play better from the flop on.
To put it another way...When I looked down and saw AJo, I thought that I was going to win more than my fair share, but I also thought that there existed a negative covariance between my preflop and postflop equity by raising. On the other hand, I think Tommy or Andy would probably argue that I could both gain preflop and postflop EV by raising, i.e. that there exists a positive covariance. This is an important difference IMO. If my view is right, then it's just a question (not that it's simple!) of finding the correct fulcrum. But if Tommy's and Andy's view is correct, then lots of hands should be raised and a fulcrum is an irrelevant concept (because nothing is being balanced--the factors are working in the same direction).
What do you all think?
-Dan
P.S. I apologize to Tommy and Andy if I incorrectly inferred their opinions.