Pyle
06-03-2004, 03:40 PM
I understand (or am told) that to calculate the odds of hitting a flush after the flop when holding 2 of the same suit and having 2 hit the board is 1-[(38/47)*(37/46)] =.35 or 35%. This is because you need to calculate the odds of NOT hitting your flush.
I don't understand. Why cant you calculate it as the odds of hitting your flush, like so:
9/47 + 9/46 = .387 or almost 39%.
I am obviosuly not a math wiz, but I dont understand why the # is different, or why this isnt the same thing...
Sorry for the simple question.
Thanks - been lurking for a while and am getting up the nerve to ask some questions.
I don't understand. Why cant you calculate it as the odds of hitting your flush, like so:
9/47 + 9/46 = .387 or almost 39%.
I am obviosuly not a math wiz, but I dont understand why the # is different, or why this isnt the same thing...
Sorry for the simple question.
Thanks - been lurking for a while and am getting up the nerve to ask some questions.