durron597
05-28-2004, 05:29 PM
So I'm having an argument with a friend over McClain's play, and it goes like this. My friend says he played it right. I say:
McClain calls Raymer's raise. Then you have a chance to get a read post-flop. On the other hand, you know he will call your allin anyway, since he has better than 3:1 odds on the call. When you see that JT8 board, you can try to see if he has that set or if he has a dominated hand like AK. At the very least you get a read and one more chance to fold - and wait for someone else to go out and make an additional $100,000
Can a more experienced player help settle this argument?
McClain calls Raymer's raise. Then you have a chance to get a read post-flop. On the other hand, you know he will call your allin anyway, since he has better than 3:1 odds on the call. When you see that JT8 board, you can try to see if he has that set or if he has a dominated hand like AK. At the very least you get a read and one more chance to fold - and wait for someone else to go out and make an additional $100,000
Can a more experienced player help settle this argument?