dabluebery
05-24-2004, 11:07 AM
I'm doing some analysis of my home NL-ring game. It's low stakes, but taken very seriously. We play .25 / .50 blinds, and then it's NL from there. The buy in is usually around $20.
Let's say I hold AQs. If I make a $5 raise, (which is huge for our game). With what hands will people call with? I figured the percentage chance of someone holding a calling hand to that bet, for hands like AK, AKs, big pockets, some suited connectors, and suited Aces.
The chances of one other player holding a "calling" hand by my definition is about 9%. If there are 9 other players, though, what are the chances that one of the 9 will hold one of those calling hands???
I have this math, but I think it's wrong;
=(1-(.09))^9
which is (100%-9%) for chances of them not having a hand, multiplied by itself however number of players there are. Where am I going wrong?
Let's say I hold AQs. If I make a $5 raise, (which is huge for our game). With what hands will people call with? I figured the percentage chance of someone holding a calling hand to that bet, for hands like AK, AKs, big pockets, some suited connectors, and suited Aces.
The chances of one other player holding a "calling" hand by my definition is about 9%. If there are 9 other players, though, what are the chances that one of the 9 will hold one of those calling hands???
I have this math, but I think it's wrong;
=(1-(.09))^9
which is (100%-9%) for chances of them not having a hand, multiplied by itself however number of players there are. Where am I going wrong?