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coltrane
05-18-2004, 02:48 PM
Say there is $5 in the pot before the flop....I bet $5 on the flop, and then an opponent raises $10 more.....why is my $5 bet on the flop considered part of the pot at this point?.....I realize that steal potential, etc. must be considered, and that technically my flop bet now belongs to the pot, but I would think pot odds should be calculated on how much it cost you to see the next card in total from the previous street......so are my odds 25:10 at this point, or 20:15 to see the turn card?

Roman
05-18-2004, 03:09 PM
As far as I know, your bet is part of the pot at that point and should be included when you calculate the pot odds.

schwza
05-18-2004, 03:58 PM
Suppose your opponent has $101 after the flop is dealt and you have a gutshot straight draw. There is $30 in the pot. You decide to bluff and bet $100, and he raises all-in for an additional $1.

You should obviously call - you're risking $1 to win $230. When considering what to do, the first $100 is already gone, and it doesn't matter if it went into the pot before the flop or after - it's in the pot now.

The place you would want to consider the $101 bet-and-call is if you're thinking about the hand later and trying to figure out if you got your money in good. In this case, you didn't - you risked $101 to win $131 getting worse than 101:131 odds. Hope that helps.

Richie Rich
05-19-2004, 08:08 PM
In short, your original $5 bet is part of the pot and there is no way you can get that back unless you win the pot.

If the pot is already 5, you bet 5 and your opponent raises you to 10, it will cost you 5 more to stay in a pot which is already 20. So the pot is offering you 4:1 odds (20 already in the pot:5 to call his raise).