06-25-2002, 07:12 PM
6-12 game that had been loose, then tightened up quite considerably. Nobody particularly soft in this game.
I have QhQc on button. Surprisingly, given the recent texture, 4 players call. I raise, the blinds drop, the other 4 call. $70 in pot (SB=$4).
Flop is 9 7 3, two diamonds. UTG bets, 3 calls, I raise, all call. $130 in pot.
Turn is Jd, and it is checked to me.
What goes through my mind is:
The point made in THFAP about betting hands with few/no outs in order to not give a free card and releasing those hands if raised. (I am sure that had I been in EP or basically anywhere but last to act I'd have bet out and likely dropped to a raise). Plus, given the fact that people here were decent, they would likely have bet a made flush if they had it, knowing that if I didn't have it I would not likely bet. Without a bet, I am probably in the lead still, though now J9 (2-pr) and T8 (straight) are possibilities.
However, since I was last to act, I figured that if I bet one of three things would happen: (1) I would win the pot immediately, (2) be called by 2-pr or better, or (3) be checkraised. With that kind of board I was unlikely to be called unless I was beat. Right?
So I checked. Weak play?
The river was 2d. Again it was checked to me. Without a diamond, did I really stand a good chance of betting and hoping that someone with the 6d or 8d would fold? Then again, maybe a straight or 2-pr would fold. Either way, I figured the pot was big enough that one of the four would call with a small diamond, 2-pr, etc.
I flipped over the QQ and to my amazement they all mucked.
Would you have bet the turn and/or river? If so, why betting rather than checking?
Thx,
99
I have QhQc on button. Surprisingly, given the recent texture, 4 players call. I raise, the blinds drop, the other 4 call. $70 in pot (SB=$4).
Flop is 9 7 3, two diamonds. UTG bets, 3 calls, I raise, all call. $130 in pot.
Turn is Jd, and it is checked to me.
What goes through my mind is:
The point made in THFAP about betting hands with few/no outs in order to not give a free card and releasing those hands if raised. (I am sure that had I been in EP or basically anywhere but last to act I'd have bet out and likely dropped to a raise). Plus, given the fact that people here were decent, they would likely have bet a made flush if they had it, knowing that if I didn't have it I would not likely bet. Without a bet, I am probably in the lead still, though now J9 (2-pr) and T8 (straight) are possibilities.
However, since I was last to act, I figured that if I bet one of three things would happen: (1) I would win the pot immediately, (2) be called by 2-pr or better, or (3) be checkraised. With that kind of board I was unlikely to be called unless I was beat. Right?
So I checked. Weak play?
The river was 2d. Again it was checked to me. Without a diamond, did I really stand a good chance of betting and hoping that someone with the 6d or 8d would fold? Then again, maybe a straight or 2-pr would fold. Either way, I figured the pot was big enough that one of the four would call with a small diamond, 2-pr, etc.
I flipped over the QQ and to my amazement they all mucked.
Would you have bet the turn and/or river? If so, why betting rather than checking?
Thx,
99