06-18-2002, 01:14 PM
I have been dropping a lot of money in my blind play lately and I'm trying to decide if it's a bad run of cards or my play.
Here is an example. 3/6 SB is $1. All fold to me with Kc Jh. I raise. I think this has to be right. With the $1/$3 blind structure what is your cut-off point for playable hands?
In this example the BB is known to me to be loose and aggressive. He will defend almost anything.
He just calls my raise.
*** FLOP *** : [ Qd 2c Qc ]
I bet he raises. This could mean anything. I just call. Anyone raise back here?
*** TURN *** : [ Qd 2c Qc ] [ Qs ]
I check. He bets, I call. I've resigned myself to calling him down so would I be better to bet out here pretty sure he won't re-raise without the goods?
*** RIVER *** : [ Qd 2c Qc Qs ] [ Th ]
I check, he checks.
ANyone play this any different??
He had A5o and won it.
Here is an example. 3/6 SB is $1. All fold to me with Kc Jh. I raise. I think this has to be right. With the $1/$3 blind structure what is your cut-off point for playable hands?
In this example the BB is known to me to be loose and aggressive. He will defend almost anything.
He just calls my raise.
*** FLOP *** : [ Qd 2c Qc ]
I bet he raises. This could mean anything. I just call. Anyone raise back here?
*** TURN *** : [ Qd 2c Qc ] [ Qs ]
I check. He bets, I call. I've resigned myself to calling him down so would I be better to bet out here pretty sure he won't re-raise without the goods?
*** RIVER *** : [ Qd 2c Qc Qs ] [ Th ]
I check, he checks.
ANyone play this any different??
He had A5o and won it.