creedofhubris
04-28-2004, 02:37 AM
Here's our scenario: 5-10 NL, 10 players, $500 buyins. Well-heeled maniac announces that he will call any and all all-ins preflop. He proceeds to bet heavily and call all-ins with hands like QT, A7o, and 52s, refilling whenever he loses. Other players tend to be timid, and a lot of his raises are going uncalled. At this point he is betting 40 with about 2/3 of his hands.
Question: What hands do you push him all-in with? My plan was, big aces and pocket pairs above a five. (I was toying with the idea of any ace...) I pushed him all-in with AK (this is what started the whole mess, our game dissolved around us, we were heads-up, and I picked up AK...) and AJs, lost AKo to Q8s but beat QTo with AJs.
Phase two of not-a-thought-experiment: Maniac announces that he is keeping deal; he will call any all-ins after he raises preflop. However, maniac stops raising preflop nearly as often with junk hands, and now seems to be only raising with things like big aces and pocket pairs.
What do you push him all-in with here? I'm thinking that we now move up to at least jacks.
Question: What hands do you push him all-in with? My plan was, big aces and pocket pairs above a five. (I was toying with the idea of any ace...) I pushed him all-in with AK (this is what started the whole mess, our game dissolved around us, we were heads-up, and I picked up AK...) and AJs, lost AKo to Q8s but beat QTo with AJs.
Phase two of not-a-thought-experiment: Maniac announces that he is keeping deal; he will call any all-ins after he raises preflop. However, maniac stops raising preflop nearly as often with junk hands, and now seems to be only raising with things like big aces and pocket pairs.
What do you push him all-in with here? I'm thinking that we now move up to at least jacks.