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PipeWalker
04-24-2004, 05:46 AM
Ok starting to get it I think lets say you have 10 outs you go 2 card draw (37/47)*(36*46)= .616096207 roughly 62% of missing. .616096207 - 1 = .383903792 roughly 38% chance of hitting. (.616096207/ .383903792)= 1.61:1 Still dont get what the 1.61:1 stands for used to mix in with pot odds?
lets say the Pot size is 200$ after the flop he bets 40$ so pot odds would be 5:1 right? so draw odds are 1.61:1 pot odds are 5:1 still dont get whats the diffrence in % or what ever between 5-1 and 1.61:1 and what it needs to be to justify a call. Also need help on mixing effective odds and impliled odds into the mix would be a tons of help if anyone can explain this. I know Effective odds are $ you need to pay to keep playing i think and Implied odds are how much you will get paid off if catch or somthing actually i dont know but I know I need some help all I fsking know lol need help mixing it all together to make like a full dinner not just a side dish
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Dont mind below just trying to get it stuck in my head printing it later people can use it as help if needed if they are right lol rounding some a little

1 out (46/47)*(45/46)=.98 You will roughly miss 96% (.957446808-1)=.043 rougly hit 4%
=22.5:1
2 outs (45/47)*(44/46)=.92 roughly miss 92%
(.915818686-1)=.084 roughly hit 8%
10.88:1
3 outs (44/47)*(43/46)= .875115633
roughly miss 88% roughly hit 12%
7:1
4 outs (43/47)*(42/46)= .83533765
roughly miss 84% of time roughly hit 16%
5.1:1
5 outs (42/47)*(41/46)= .796484736
roughly miss 80% roughly hit 20%
3.9:1
6 outs
ill do rest tomarrow late tired as fux ill just edit it. If someone could help me out though would be money thanks

PipeWalker
04-24-2004, 04:13 PM
Up top spose to be(37/47)*(36/46) typeo if anyone could help me would be cool