Vern
04-09-2004, 04:27 AM
4th hand of a Party Poker $10 SnG No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t15 (10 handed) converter (http://www.selachian.com/tools/bisonconverter/hhconverter.cgi)
UTG+1 (t770)
UTG+2 (t1100)
Hero (t800)
MP2 (t745)
MP3 (t1400)
CO (t760)
Button (t240)
SB (t785)
BB (t700)
UTG (t700)
Preflop: Hero is MP1 with J/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, J/images/graemlins/heart.gif.
UTG folds, UTG+1 calls t15, UTG+2 folds, <font color="CC3333">Hero raises to t75</font>, MP2 calls t75, MP3 calls t75, <font color="CC3333">CO raises to t135</font>, Button folds, SB folds, BB folds, UTG+1 folds, <font color="CC3333">Hero raises to t800 (All-In)</font>, MP2 folds, MP3 folds, CO calls t625 (All-In).
Flop: (t1750) A/images/graemlins/club.gif, 2/images/graemlins/heart.gif, 3/images/graemlins/diamond.gif <font color="blue">(2 players, 2 all-in)</font>
Turn: (t1750) 6/images/graemlins/diamond.gif <font color="blue">(2 players, 2 all-in)</font>
River: (t1750) 4/images/graemlins/heart.gif <font color="blue">(2 players, 2 all-in)</font>
Final Pot: t1750
<font color="#990066">Main Pot: t1710 (t1710), between Hero and CO.</font> > <font color="white">Pot won by CO (t1710).</font>
<font color="#990066">Pot 2: t40 (t40), overbet by Hero.</font>
Results in white below: <font color="white">
Hero shows Jd Jh (one pair, jacks).
CO shows Ks Ad (one pair, aces).
Outcome: CO wins t1710. Hero wins t40. </font>
My thought was to go all-in to get all the others out or at least heads up. Is this early enough that I should have called his re-raise and seen the flop? If I called, would I be folding the best hand pre-flop if one of the other original callers came back over the top or calling all-in instead of raising to it? All criticism welcome. Thanks.
Vern
UTG+1 (t770)
UTG+2 (t1100)
Hero (t800)
MP2 (t745)
MP3 (t1400)
CO (t760)
Button (t240)
SB (t785)
BB (t700)
UTG (t700)
Preflop: Hero is MP1 with J/images/graemlins/diamond.gif, J/images/graemlins/heart.gif.
UTG folds, UTG+1 calls t15, UTG+2 folds, <font color="CC3333">Hero raises to t75</font>, MP2 calls t75, MP3 calls t75, <font color="CC3333">CO raises to t135</font>, Button folds, SB folds, BB folds, UTG+1 folds, <font color="CC3333">Hero raises to t800 (All-In)</font>, MP2 folds, MP3 folds, CO calls t625 (All-In).
Flop: (t1750) A/images/graemlins/club.gif, 2/images/graemlins/heart.gif, 3/images/graemlins/diamond.gif <font color="blue">(2 players, 2 all-in)</font>
Turn: (t1750) 6/images/graemlins/diamond.gif <font color="blue">(2 players, 2 all-in)</font>
River: (t1750) 4/images/graemlins/heart.gif <font color="blue">(2 players, 2 all-in)</font>
Final Pot: t1750
<font color="#990066">Main Pot: t1710 (t1710), between Hero and CO.</font> > <font color="white">Pot won by CO (t1710).</font>
<font color="#990066">Pot 2: t40 (t40), overbet by Hero.</font>
Results in white below: <font color="white">
Hero shows Jd Jh (one pair, jacks).
CO shows Ks Ad (one pair, aces).
Outcome: CO wins t1710. Hero wins t40. </font>
My thought was to go all-in to get all the others out or at least heads up. Is this early enough that I should have called his re-raise and seen the flop? If I called, would I be folding the best hand pre-flop if one of the other original callers came back over the top or calling all-in instead of raising to it? All criticism welcome. Thanks.
Vern