Another middle pocket pair situation (66)

[shaniac]

1st Round after rebuy period in $11+rebuys Pokerstars tournament.

I have nearly 17K in chips which is a little bit better than 2X the average. Been showing down good hands, getting paid off by second-bests, to get my chips for the most part. In the recent past of the tournament I had shown uncotnested sets (22 and AA) for winners.

Then this hand happens: 75/150 and we get one limper, whose play is fairly unkown to me. Shortstack goes allin for T1200 or so. I call the 1200 with 66. Folded back to the limper who goes in for his a total of T3460. It's T2200 and change to call. The pot is around 6000.

What's the correct play?

Results are below in the annoyingly formatted (but truncated) hand history below.

thanks,
Shane
*** HOLE CARDS ***
Dealt to shaniac [6h 6d]
reigndown: folds
aragon: calls 150
aragon: raises 2270 to 3460 and is all-in


.............




shaniac: folds
*** FLOP *** [Jd 6c 6s]
shaniac said, "nice hand aragon"
shaniac said, "OMG"
shaniac said, "OMG"
*** TURN *** [Jd 6c 6s] [4c]
*** RIVER *** [Jd 6c 6s 4c] [9h]
shaniac said, "I folded 66"
*** SHOW DOWN ***
aragon: shows [Kh Ks] (two pair, Kings and Sixes)
the_schmenx: shows [8d 7c] (a pair of Sixes)

[shaniac]

100/200 25 ante level of the same tournament. I have 19K or so in chips and the same player who limped-reraised with KK in the first post limps again. A player with 12K or so raises the minimum to 400.

I smooth call with JJ. You can insert your comments here but I thought this was the best play.

The real juice of the story comes when the same player who limp-reraised allin a little while ago with KK does it again for another 3600. The original minimum-raiser folds. What's the best play? Consider that the most salient thing I know about this opponent is the he is capable of limp-reraising with monsters such as KK.

Results in another post.

Shane

[VarlosZ]

[ QUOTE ]
Then this hand happens: 75/150 and we get one limper, whose play is fairly unkown to me. Shortstack goes allin for T1200 or so. I call the 1200 with 66. Folded back to the limper who goes in for his a total of T3460. It's T2200 and change to call. The pot is around 6000.

What's the correct play?

[/ QUOTE ]
I think the correct play is to get in your time machine, go back to the start of this hand, and fold to the short-stack's raise. Yes, you might pick off someone making a desperation bet by winning a coin flip, but this seems like a great way to squander your big stack. With eight big blinds, this player isn't in total desperation mode. His chance of having a higher pocket pair is such that you will probably lose this hand, even if we assume that the limper will fold -- the chance that he will stay in only tips the scales further. It's not your job to knock people out of the tournament personally, and you can afford to be patient. So fold.

Failing that, folding to the reraise is certainly correct.

[Greg (FossilMan)]

Fold to the initial raise. You can't really be much of a favorite here, if at all. But, once you're in that deep, and getting almost 3:1 on the last call against what could be AK, call.

Later, Greg Raymer (FossilMan)

[curtains]

Hey, this is a MUCH different situation than your other small pair post from a few days ago. I wouldn't even call the initial 1200 raise. In the other situation you were closing the action and had about 5 callers preflop. This time its head's up and you are looking at best at a 50-50, with still the possibility that someone could raise after you.

Its funny, that you caught the allin player on an absolute bluff, yet he was still basically 50-50 with you. Also in the future, if you are going to flop quads, don't fold.

I don't really know what to do after calling the initial raise. I'd usually call in such situations since it's very rare that its correct to put in 1200 preflop and then fold for 2200 more (With no further action occuring postflop). However if the guy has an overpair, you shouldn't call. I don't think there is anything terribly wrong with folding, if the guy will have an overpair 80-90% (just a guess, not sure of exact math) of the time?