wacki
03-29-2004, 12:41 PM
I have a home game every saturday that is filled with mostly maniacs and a couple of people, although still considered loose by 2+2 standards, actually play in a somewhat logical fashion. Although, I have the game beat, I am wondering what percentage of the flops should I be seeing, and more importantly, whats the math behind figuring this out? That way I can calculate the percentage of the flops I need to play in all future games.
Heres the game:
The buy-in is half or full.
You can buy in as many times as you want, but are capped at the max buy in limit. Depending on the night is either $10 or $20 bucks.
There are no blinds, ante's are 5 cents.
The play. There are ussually 2 people (besides me) that play with some rhyme or reason. The rest tend to vary greatly on the play from calling an all-on on the flop when they haven't even made a pair and there is a 3 flush on board, to playing the typically loose game you see on Party 's cheapest NL tourneys. The play varies according to the mood with these people.
Even though the preflop ante's are 5 cents, people tend to always bet 30 cents before the flop, but rarely ever raise the 30 cents.
If you bet .50 on flop $1 on turn and a $1 or $2 on river, atleast 3-6 people will almost always stay.
If you bet .50 on flop, and a $1 on turn and go all in $10 on river, you can get a caller about 25% of the time, and two or three callers %25 of the time, and get you will get everybody to fold about %50 of the time. On some nights, however, you'll be lucky to get even a %25 fold rate on an all in.
Playing No-Foldem holdem is nice because of the big payoffs, but means that you ussually need to have a straight to win. Even a three of a kind is risky business in this game. Occasionally I can read the opponents well enough to actaully win an all-in on the river with a top pair, but that happens about once or twice a night. It's just too risky.
My Question basically is, what percentage of the flops do I see? And if you could, please explain to me how you got to that result?
Heres the game:
The buy-in is half or full.
You can buy in as many times as you want, but are capped at the max buy in limit. Depending on the night is either $10 or $20 bucks.
There are no blinds, ante's are 5 cents.
The play. There are ussually 2 people (besides me) that play with some rhyme or reason. The rest tend to vary greatly on the play from calling an all-on on the flop when they haven't even made a pair and there is a 3 flush on board, to playing the typically loose game you see on Party 's cheapest NL tourneys. The play varies according to the mood with these people.
Even though the preflop ante's are 5 cents, people tend to always bet 30 cents before the flop, but rarely ever raise the 30 cents.
If you bet .50 on flop $1 on turn and a $1 or $2 on river, atleast 3-6 people will almost always stay.
If you bet .50 on flop, and a $1 on turn and go all in $10 on river, you can get a caller about 25% of the time, and two or three callers %25 of the time, and get you will get everybody to fold about %50 of the time. On some nights, however, you'll be lucky to get even a %25 fold rate on an all in.
Playing No-Foldem holdem is nice because of the big payoffs, but means that you ussually need to have a straight to win. Even a three of a kind is risky business in this game. Occasionally I can read the opponents well enough to actaully win an all-in on the river with a top pair, but that happens about once or twice a night. It's just too risky.
My Question basically is, what percentage of the flops do I see? And if you could, please explain to me how you got to that result?