View Full Version : Reading this article at the table today....
slavic
03-26-2004, 04:39 AM
The chart at the bottom looks off to me.
http://www.cardplayer.com/?sec=afeature&art_id=13913
Nottom
03-26-2004, 05:03 AM
At first glance everything looks ok to me, what looks off to you?
slavic
03-26-2004, 06:16 AM
It's that he listed % and not odds. The look correct.
In the case of flopping a set.
(100 - 11.8)/11.8 gives 7.47 so the number is right.
For some reason I had a larger percentage memorized for AK flopping an ace or a king. Looks like I should sit down and rework my numbers again.
rayrns
03-26-2004, 10:18 AM
I must be doing something wrong. But here is what I came up with.
19,600 possible 3 card flops
1 of 6 cards will give us an A or K on the flop.
44 cards that are not an A or K
Math:
44*43/2*1 = 946 combinations that won't contain an A or K
946*6 = 5676 combinations that will contain an A or K
5676/19600 = .28959 = .29 or 29%
So you should get an A or K on the flop 29% of the time.
I think Warrens Book has the answer at about 40%. What am I doing wrong?
Ed Miller
03-26-2004, 10:26 AM
Flopping ace or king:
Flops without an ace or king (given you have AK): 44 * 43 * 42 / 6 = 13244
% to flop ace or king = 1 - 13244/19600 = 32.4%
nepenthe
03-26-2004, 02:56 PM
The correct calculation, I think is the following:
6/50+(44/50 x 6/49)+(44/50 x 43/49 x 6/48)
Assuming you have AK, there are 3 A's and 3 K's in the deck, or 6 out of 50. The equation translates to:
(A or K as 1st card) or (Not (A or K as 1st card) AND (A or K as 2nd card)) or (Not (A or K as 1st or 2nd cards) AND (A or K as 3rd card))
I get 32.43%.
sthief09
03-26-2004, 03:21 PM
another way:
[C(6,1)*C(44,2)+C(6,2)*C(44,1)+C(6,3)]/C(50,3)
= 6356/19600
= .324
or
1-C(44,3)/C(50,3)
rayrns
03-26-2004, 03:25 PM
Thank you for the way you added in the meaning of each of the numbers. That helps a lot.
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