03-28-2002, 02:00 PM
Long time reader, first time poster.
A good 3-6 weekday afternoon game at the Taj, the table is tight and passive with only a few players who get tricky. It's folded around to the button, who looks at his cards and says, "I've got to call" and throws in $3. I look down and find AKo and raise. He calls. Since he didn't open raise, I believe that he holds at least a decent ace or two big cards and is trying to slowplay. From watching this player, I believe that he would have raised to try and steal the blinds if he had something worse. This may have been a bad assumption, but it was my read.
The Flop was K74 rainbow. I bet, he raised, I three bet and he called. The turn was a 10. I bet and he called. The river was an Ace. I bet and he called. I turned over my top two pair and he showed me a KJ offsuit and said "I had to call".
My quesion is, who would have called the raise on the flop and tried for a checkraise on the turn? I knew that his raise meant that he hit the flop, but I wanted to three-bet to see if he'd reraise representing a set or two-pair. If he had two big and unpaired cards, the turn checkraise may have been perfect. However, if he had an ace, he may have checked behind me on the turn. Am I suffering from fancy play syndrom here?
All comments appreciated.
A good 3-6 weekday afternoon game at the Taj, the table is tight and passive with only a few players who get tricky. It's folded around to the button, who looks at his cards and says, "I've got to call" and throws in $3. I look down and find AKo and raise. He calls. Since he didn't open raise, I believe that he holds at least a decent ace or two big cards and is trying to slowplay. From watching this player, I believe that he would have raised to try and steal the blinds if he had something worse. This may have been a bad assumption, but it was my read.
The Flop was K74 rainbow. I bet, he raised, I three bet and he called. The turn was a 10. I bet and he called. The river was an Ace. I bet and he called. I turned over my top two pair and he showed me a KJ offsuit and said "I had to call".
My quesion is, who would have called the raise on the flop and tried for a checkraise on the turn? I knew that his raise meant that he hit the flop, but I wanted to three-bet to see if he'd reraise representing a set or two-pair. If he had two big and unpaired cards, the turn checkraise may have been perfect. However, if he had an ace, he may have checked behind me on the turn. Am I suffering from fancy play syndrom here?
All comments appreciated.