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craig r
03-17-2004, 07:09 AM
Quick question. Is the odds of the flop coming 3 to a suit equal to approx. 1.29% (13/52*12/51*11/50)? I don't know if this is correct. Any help with this would be much appreciated.

Thanks,

Craig

Lost Wages
03-17-2004, 09:58 AM
If your question is "What is the probability of the flop being 3 diamonds?", then you have the correct answer. If your question is "What is the probability of the flop being 3 of any suit?", then you need to multiply your result by 4.

Lost Wages

La Brujita
03-17-2004, 10:52 AM
Edit to say: Lost Wages already gave the answer.

beerbandit
03-17-2004, 02:54 PM
remember that you are holding two of the cards--