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View Full Version : all in without being able to cover the blinds


JohnS
03-09-2004, 06:21 AM
Folks,

We had this come up in our home game last week.

One of us was almost out, the 2 blinds had been posted, and he came in with all he had, not even a small blind. Given that they are forced bets, is he eligable to win the whole blinds or just the equivalent of this stack from both?

What happens when this person is one of the blinds?

We did not know what to do here, so we just let him play for the blinds, which he won btw, and enabled him to come home second:-) maybe this should be a lesson learned, but hey, we are all mates, and its not that serious :-)

Thanks again

-John

crockpot
03-09-2004, 07:26 AM
he can only win the equivalent of his stack.

rayrns
03-09-2004, 08:43 AM
Ring game: if you don't have enough to post the blind you are out of that hand. You can reload, post the missed blind/blinds and re-enter the game after the button passes you.

Tournament: if you have less than a full blind, you put in what you have and that is the amount you can play for only.

Kurn, son of Mogh
03-10-2004, 12:08 PM
1) The person who is all-in for less than the sb can only win that much from each of the remaining players.

However,

2) the SB must at least call the BB to see the flop. He can raise to knock out the BB if he chooses.

Example. SB is 100, BB is 200. Player goes all-in for 75. All fold to the SB who calls the BB. Main pot is 225 (75 from each player) contested by all three. Side pot between the SB and BB is 250.