asymmetrical
01-23-2004, 01:26 PM
Hey all: I've been lurking here for a few months now, and I've learned a lot. I thought it was finally time to post a question on a hand I played recently in a home game that's been bugging me, as I'm not sure what my correct play should have been.
I've got good reads on most of the players, but I won't go into that until I get a better hand to post; this is more of a general implied vs. pot odds question that I don't know the correct answer to.
I've got AK on the button. There's a ton of action PF, and a modest amount on the flop. Table is loose—sometimes wild—and aggressive.
We get to the turn and the board is
4c Qd 6h 10c
I don't remember exact cards suits/ I just know the turn gave me a gutshot to the nut straight, and there was a flush draw on the board. I'd bet my overcards fairly aggresively PF and on the flop. On the turn, the EP bet out, MP made it 2 to go, LP called and it was to me. I've got to put 2BBs in to call (hate calling 2 cold), and there are about 20 BBs in the pot.
I figure that's 1/11ish pot odds (EP is calling, I'm assuming) on a 3/46 or 1/15ish chance of making me a winner (that last Jack is giving LP his flush, I'm pretty sure). I don't like it and I fold.
Of course, the Js falls on the river and I watch a very nice size pot get dragged by 2 pair.
How do implied odds work here?
The river brought an EP check, MP bet, LP fold and EP call (2more BBs in the pot).
With me in the pot, throw in a bet, raise (me) and two callers: someone had 2 pair or trips and was calling me down, and the other guy probably wouldn't give up his hand on the river. That would have been 6 more BBs in the pot (2 of them mine, of course), and that gets me close to my drawing odds.
I'm having trouble with this concept. In general, if I'm pretty certain of what the river action will be if I make my hand, should I include those future bets when figuring my odds? Or is that bad practice?
Thanks in advance for all the knowledge in this forum, not just the response to this message.
I've got good reads on most of the players, but I won't go into that until I get a better hand to post; this is more of a general implied vs. pot odds question that I don't know the correct answer to.
I've got AK on the button. There's a ton of action PF, and a modest amount on the flop. Table is loose—sometimes wild—and aggressive.
We get to the turn and the board is
4c Qd 6h 10c
I don't remember exact cards suits/ I just know the turn gave me a gutshot to the nut straight, and there was a flush draw on the board. I'd bet my overcards fairly aggresively PF and on the flop. On the turn, the EP bet out, MP made it 2 to go, LP called and it was to me. I've got to put 2BBs in to call (hate calling 2 cold), and there are about 20 BBs in the pot.
I figure that's 1/11ish pot odds (EP is calling, I'm assuming) on a 3/46 or 1/15ish chance of making me a winner (that last Jack is giving LP his flush, I'm pretty sure). I don't like it and I fold.
Of course, the Js falls on the river and I watch a very nice size pot get dragged by 2 pair.
How do implied odds work here?
The river brought an EP check, MP bet, LP fold and EP call (2more BBs in the pot).
With me in the pot, throw in a bet, raise (me) and two callers: someone had 2 pair or trips and was calling me down, and the other guy probably wouldn't give up his hand on the river. That would have been 6 more BBs in the pot (2 of them mine, of course), and that gets me close to my drawing odds.
I'm having trouble with this concept. In general, if I'm pretty certain of what the river action will be if I make my hand, should I include those future bets when figuring my odds? Or is that bad practice?
Thanks in advance for all the knowledge in this forum, not just the response to this message.