poker

I was reading a poker book and the author said if you have 2 jacks there's about a 50% chance of getting an overcard on the flop(is that correct and if so would someone show me the way to figure it)


thanks

Actually it's 57%.


There are 12 overcards out of 50 before the flop, so the probability of NOT getting one on the flop is:


(38/50)*(37/49)*(36/48) = 43%


So the probability of getting one is 57%.

thanks for answering,however, do those numbers represent the odds of each card on the flop,for instance 38/50 is for the first cardwhich is about a 1in4 chanceof hitting an overcard,how do the next 2 cards move the odds to 57%? I am trying to understand


thanks again

Yes, each number is the probability of each card on the flop not being an overcard.

I should say, each number is the probability of each successive card on the flop not being an overcard given that the preceding card(s) were not overcards.

The more useful number in this situation is the probability that you get a jack or do not get an overcard.