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Kenshin
12-12-2003, 02:50 PM
The hero is playing 10-20 against 5 loose passive players at intercasino. Blessed by fate, he receives JJ in the CO. UTG and UTG+1 call and the hero raises. The button, small blind, UTG and UTG+1 call (BB folds). The Flop comes 9 K K. Checked to the hero who bets. UTG+1 folds, everyone else calls. The turn is a 7. Checked to the hero who bets again. Small blind folds, everyone else calls. The river is a 6. UTG then comes out betting pertubing the hitherto unflappable hero. The hero makes a crying call. The villian reveals pocket sixes and takes the pot. I am not complaining about the beat; however, could I have induced the pocket sixes to fold earlier by playing the hand differently?

elysium
12-12-2003, 03:24 PM
hi kenshin
if you've been varying your play when betting out, and you've been betting out a lot with the goods, you played it perfectly. if however you have been check-raising the goods a lot, then you played it poorly.

if your check-bluff: bet-out ratio is correct, then you played it perfectly whether you bet-out or you check-bluffed. a good reason for correct ratio.

astroglide
12-12-2003, 03:32 PM
why do you want a 2-outer to fold?