12-30-2001, 06:09 PM
I know questions like this are asked often but I'm still having trouble with the concept.
Here's a hypothetical situation dealing with a flush draw, please help me understand what odds I am getting.
$5-$10
I call UTG with KQd as do two MP players and both the blinds- 5 players total
FLOP: As 3d 8d
Assuming I bet out and all 4 players will call my bet and there is no chance that they will all fold, am I theoretically making $10 on this bet becuase my odds of hitting my flush on the next two cards are 2:1 and I will be getting 4:1 on my bet, or am I just breaking even because my odds of hittng on the next card are about 4:1?
If you know that you will have to call a bet when you check the turn can you still say that the odds of hitting a flush are 2:1 on the flop?
BTW-I know how to calculate odds with one card to come but not with two.
Here's a hypothetical situation dealing with a flush draw, please help me understand what odds I am getting.
$5-$10
I call UTG with KQd as do two MP players and both the blinds- 5 players total
FLOP: As 3d 8d
Assuming I bet out and all 4 players will call my bet and there is no chance that they will all fold, am I theoretically making $10 on this bet becuase my odds of hitting my flush on the next two cards are 2:1 and I will be getting 4:1 on my bet, or am I just breaking even because my odds of hittng on the next card are about 4:1?
If you know that you will have to call a bet when you check the turn can you still say that the odds of hitting a flush are 2:1 on the flop?
BTW-I know how to calculate odds with one card to come but not with two.