Paul2432
11-11-2003, 11:19 AM
Suppose you've made it to the turn in a heads up hold'em situation. Assume for this problem, you know with certainty that your opponent has a 50% chance of holding AA and a 50% chance of holding KK with no other hand possible.
Now suppose the river comes with a king. Is it still 50/50, or have the odds changed to 2:1 in favor of AA.
If your opponent would bet the river no matter what, would you call getting 1.5:1 odds if you beat AA but lose to KKK?
Thanks,
Paul
Now suppose the river comes with a king. Is it still 50/50, or have the odds changed to 2:1 in favor of AA.
If your opponent would bet the river no matter what, would you call getting 1.5:1 odds if you beat AA but lose to KKK?
Thanks,
Paul