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Paul2432
11-11-2003, 11:19 AM
Suppose you've made it to the turn in a heads up hold'em situation. Assume for this problem, you know with certainty that your opponent has a 50% chance of holding AA and a 50% chance of holding KK with no other hand possible.

Now suppose the river comes with a king. Is it still 50/50, or have the odds changed to 2:1 in favor of AA.

If your opponent would bet the river no matter what, would you call getting 1.5:1 odds if you beat AA but lose to KKK?

Thanks,
Paul

thylacine
11-11-2003, 11:52 AM
Q: Now suppose the river comes with a king. Is it still 50/50, or have the odds changed to 2:1 in favor of AA?

A: Yes.

Q: If your opponent would bet the river no matter what, would you call getting 1.5:1 odds if you beat AA but lose to KKK?

A: Yes.

Paul2432
11-11-2003, 02:29 PM
Thanks for the reply. Your answer is what I expected.

Paul