Jon Shoreman
10-13-2003, 06:26 PM
I know the odds of the flop containing one pair only (i.e. not trips, two pair, or quads) is 42.34% (got it from Super System)
Can anyone tell me how to perform the calculation?
And also, how I would calculate for at least a pair (i.e. one pair, trips, two pair or quads)?
Thanks
Can anyone tell me how to perform the calculation?
And also, how I would calculate for at least a pair (i.e. one pair, trips, two pair or quads)?
Thanks