offTopic
08-21-2003, 03:02 PM
I was trying to redo the hand so it wouldn't be another "How to play aces" post, but the fact that I had an ace is central to the hand, so...
3-6 game, EP limps, I raise in MP with AA, LP coldcalls, BB calls, 4 to the pot for 8sb.
Flop is Q64, all diamonds. I have the ace of trump.
BB checks, EP bets, I auto-pilot raise. Here's question 1...if I had a hand like AQo, no diamonds, I'd want to raise here:
- because I likely have the best hand
- to charge/shutout single-diamond flush draws
- to see if anyone flopped a hand that beat mine (set/flush most likely in this case)
- to get the button
In this case, though, I don't really want to shut out the single-diamond draws, and unless something wacky happens, I'll likely see the river, if not the showdown, so the information aspect is probably not that important. In short, by raising, I'll likely fold out the people I want to stick around, while possibly getting reraised by any hand (however unlikely) that beats mine. Is this raise a mistake?
Coldcaller folds, BB folds, limper 3-bets it.
OK, I'm thinking he might have a flush, a small set, or something like QJd or KdQ, all possible limping hands. The one thing I know for sure is that he doesn't have the nut flush, and must be wary of it, so I cap (Overplay?) 15 sb in the pot (accounting for rake)
Turn is the As, giving me top set + nut flush draw...limper leads out again! He's apparently not kidding around, but if I'm not already leading, I've picked up a ton of outs.
Clear raise here, right? Even if I _know_ he's got the flush? If I give my opponent a made flush, without straight flush potential (maybe a faulty assumption, but it makes the calculation a little harder) then I'm a 27-17 dog on the river and the pot's laying me 4.75-1 on a raise...I should be happy to put in a _few_ bets here, right?
This may all be really straightforward, but I've been making some plays lately that have me questioning my thought processes.
TIA
3-6 game, EP limps, I raise in MP with AA, LP coldcalls, BB calls, 4 to the pot for 8sb.
Flop is Q64, all diamonds. I have the ace of trump.
BB checks, EP bets, I auto-pilot raise. Here's question 1...if I had a hand like AQo, no diamonds, I'd want to raise here:
- because I likely have the best hand
- to charge/shutout single-diamond flush draws
- to see if anyone flopped a hand that beat mine (set/flush most likely in this case)
- to get the button
In this case, though, I don't really want to shut out the single-diamond draws, and unless something wacky happens, I'll likely see the river, if not the showdown, so the information aspect is probably not that important. In short, by raising, I'll likely fold out the people I want to stick around, while possibly getting reraised by any hand (however unlikely) that beats mine. Is this raise a mistake?
Coldcaller folds, BB folds, limper 3-bets it.
OK, I'm thinking he might have a flush, a small set, or something like QJd or KdQ, all possible limping hands. The one thing I know for sure is that he doesn't have the nut flush, and must be wary of it, so I cap (Overplay?) 15 sb in the pot (accounting for rake)
Turn is the As, giving me top set + nut flush draw...limper leads out again! He's apparently not kidding around, but if I'm not already leading, I've picked up a ton of outs.
Clear raise here, right? Even if I _know_ he's got the flush? If I give my opponent a made flush, without straight flush potential (maybe a faulty assumption, but it makes the calculation a little harder) then I'm a 27-17 dog on the river and the pot's laying me 4.75-1 on a raise...I should be happy to put in a _few_ bets here, right?
This may all be really straightforward, but I've been making some plays lately that have me questioning my thought processes.
TIA