Georgia Peach
08-09-2003, 04:33 PM
I was watching the Foxwoods WPT final (rerun) and noted this heads up hand between H. Lederer and L. Flack.
Howard is the button:
HL, AcJd
LF, Kd7h (I don't know what level the blinds were)
Pre-flop ----------------HL raises 18K LF calls
Flop 9d3h4h-----------LF bets 25K HL calls
Turn 9d3h4h Qh------LF checks HL checks
River 9d3h4h Qh 3s--LF bets 35K HL calls
Is there anyway Lederer makes the call on the flop or the river unless he has a read on Flack? Otherwise, isn't this a hand that should be folded by one or the other, Flack pre-flop or Lederer on the flop?
It just seems like a hand where reading your opponent outweighs all other factors.
I was just wondering what anyone thought about how this was played and how it turned out. If Howard thought he had the best hand as Mike Sexton said, why not a raise on the flop?
Howard is the button:
HL, AcJd
LF, Kd7h (I don't know what level the blinds were)
Pre-flop ----------------HL raises 18K LF calls
Flop 9d3h4h-----------LF bets 25K HL calls
Turn 9d3h4h Qh------LF checks HL checks
River 9d3h4h Qh 3s--LF bets 35K HL calls
Is there anyway Lederer makes the call on the flop or the river unless he has a read on Flack? Otherwise, isn't this a hand that should be folded by one or the other, Flack pre-flop or Lederer on the flop?
It just seems like a hand where reading your opponent outweighs all other factors.
I was just wondering what anyone thought about how this was played and how it turned out. If Howard thought he had the best hand as Mike Sexton said, why not a raise on the flop?