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04-10-2002, 10:16 AM
I have reread "Theory of poker."


I understand the different strategies you should use depending on the size of the antes.


But what do Sklansky mean when he says for example that "The antes are 10-15% of the average future bets" ?


In at ten-handed 2/4 game with blinds of 1/2 what are the antes (30 cent per person ?) and what are the average future bets (3 dollar ?)


Or is the ante 3 dollar and the average future bet the same as the average pot ?


Or is the ante 3 dollar and the average future bets your own bets ?


Kim

04-10-2002, 04:25 PM
Hold'em, which you seem to be thinking of, does not have antes (except in VERY high limit games), it only has the blinds you're familiar with.


When Sklansky talks about antes, he is reffering to stud games. In Vegas Stud games the ante structure is as following:


5-10; Ante = $0.50 (10% of small bet)

10-20; Ante = $1.00 (10% of small bet)

15-30; Ante = $2.00 (13.33% of small bet)

20-40; Ante = $3.00 (15% of small bet)

04-11-2002, 12:44 PM
Yes, you need to translate "ante's" for real ante games like stud to "blinds" in no-ante games like holdem. Yes, the "ante" in holdem is about 30c/person and future bets are 2 or 4, so the "ante" is about 10% of future bets. Thus typical holdem is about an "average" ante game.


- Louie

04-11-2002, 02:42 PM