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12-27-2005, 03:55 PM
Is there anyone out there that could figure out what the odds are of losing 62 out of 70 hands in texas hold'em in which yo9u flop 2 pair and the ONLY ones you won were where the opponent had pocket Ace Kings Queens or flopped a lower 2 pair???

This has happened to me at party poker and in the last 2 months I have seen ONE HAND at the showdown win with 2 pair when the above circumstances weren't present. /images/graemlins/confused.gif

AaronBrown
12-27-2005, 06:08 PM
It's hard to figure this because there are so many different ways of it happening, and it depends so crucially on how you and the table play.

For example, it makes a big difference if you hold two different cards and match them both on a flop with no pairs in it, versus holding a pair and the flop containing a second pair.

Also, are all these losses at showdown, or are you counting some when you folded?

Just taking the second part, it doesn't seem that unlikely to me. To win with two pair in a showdown against a pair of Jacks or lower is going to be pretty rare. How often is a pair of Jacks or lower going to be the second-best hand, and how often will it go to showdown?

12-27-2005, 06:38 PM
There is no mathematic discipline that can accurately calculate the probability of the things you see happen on Partypoker.com.....LMFAO!

Just accept the fact that internet poker is a computer game and like all computer games it is designed to appeal to a certain type of mental misfit who generally suffers from ADHD among other afflictions.