hustalasta
12-12-2005, 12:38 AM
Limit Hold 'em .50/1.00
I am in the middle of an extended "no-swing", basically even for the last 20,000 hands. This has led me to look at some statitistics to see what has changed over the last 20,000 hands.What I have found is that 1 pair is winning about 7.5% less at showdown than normal. Here are my statistics for the year over a total of about 123,000 hands played:
103,000 hands
Average # of players saw flop 38.43%
% of 1 pair hands I took to SD 36.72
Hands won at SD 41.76%
Went to showdown with 1 pair 1 in every 41.5 hands dealt
20,639 hands
Average # of players saw flop 35.24%
% of 1 pair hands I took to SD 37.55
Hands won at SD 34.22%
Went to showdown with 1 pair 1 in every 42 hands dealt
Maybe this is standard deviation but one would think that if less players are seeing the flop & I am taking about the same percentage of 1 pair hands to showdown then the probabilty of them winning should be greater?
Breaking it down by groupings of about 20,000 hands
1/1/2005-4/15 ~ 1 in every 46 hands won 41.65%
4/16/2005-6/14 ~ 1 in every 36 hands won 41.34%
6/15/2005-8/7 ~ 1 in every 40 hands won 43.54%
8/8/2005-9/25 ~ 1 in every 44 hands won 42.64%
9/26/2005-11/10 ~ 1 in every 42 hands won 39.88%
11/11/2005-12/11 ~ 1 in every 42 hand won 34.78% (over last 22,365 hands)
Am I wrong in thinking that as the number of players seeing the flop decreases I should be winning more at SD with 1 pair? Or maybe I should be taking less 1 pair hands to SD becuase the pots are smaller? All in all this has me confused! any insight is appreciated.
I am in the middle of an extended "no-swing", basically even for the last 20,000 hands. This has led me to look at some statitistics to see what has changed over the last 20,000 hands.What I have found is that 1 pair is winning about 7.5% less at showdown than normal. Here are my statistics for the year over a total of about 123,000 hands played:
103,000 hands
Average # of players saw flop 38.43%
% of 1 pair hands I took to SD 36.72
Hands won at SD 41.76%
Went to showdown with 1 pair 1 in every 41.5 hands dealt
20,639 hands
Average # of players saw flop 35.24%
% of 1 pair hands I took to SD 37.55
Hands won at SD 34.22%
Went to showdown with 1 pair 1 in every 42 hands dealt
Maybe this is standard deviation but one would think that if less players are seeing the flop & I am taking about the same percentage of 1 pair hands to showdown then the probabilty of them winning should be greater?
Breaking it down by groupings of about 20,000 hands
1/1/2005-4/15 ~ 1 in every 46 hands won 41.65%
4/16/2005-6/14 ~ 1 in every 36 hands won 41.34%
6/15/2005-8/7 ~ 1 in every 40 hands won 43.54%
8/8/2005-9/25 ~ 1 in every 44 hands won 42.64%
9/26/2005-11/10 ~ 1 in every 42 hands won 39.88%
11/11/2005-12/11 ~ 1 in every 42 hand won 34.78% (over last 22,365 hands)
Am I wrong in thinking that as the number of players seeing the flop decreases I should be winning more at SD with 1 pair? Or maybe I should be taking less 1 pair hands to SD becuase the pots are smaller? All in all this has me confused! any insight is appreciated.