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12-05-2005, 05:04 AM
Imagine a game of 2-card poker. It is exactly like hold'em, except there is only a pre-flop, and the best 2-card hand wins (pair > high card > all else). In an x-handed game, which hands are favorites on average? I attempted to solve this problem myself, but I think my solution might be slightly off:

HANDED HANDS
2 [J9, AA]
3 [QT, AA]
4 [K6, AA]
5 [KT, AA]
6 [KQ, AA]
7 [A3, AA]
8 [A4, AA]
9 [A5, AA]

Would someone verify if I'm correct using math and/or simulations? Thanks /images/graemlins/confused.gif

Siegmund
12-05-2005, 05:50 AM
I am assuming suited hands are not worth anything extra in this game.

By my count, J8 loses to 600 hands, ties 9, and beats 616, while J7 loses to 612, ties 9, and beats 604.

Exact answers to multiway games are going to require more than what I can do in my head and a Notepad window to keep track of figures. Does "to be a favorite" mean to win more than half the time, or to win more than 1/N of the time, incidentally?

12-05-2005, 01:44 PM
No, flushes do not count, only pairs and high cards.

So, as I expected, apparently I was off by 1 kicker for 2-handed.

If I could edit the original post, I'd change "favorites on average" to "+EV". I think this means which hands are expected to win more than they lose.

soko
12-05-2005, 05:37 PM
Didn't they play this game in an episode of "Curb your Enthusiasm" when he called that flamboyant producer a [censored] when he folded ace high to a bluff for a 3K pot?

12-11-2005, 02:24 AM
I think my original solution was actually way off. Here's my new solution:

HANDED +EV
2 [J7, AA]
3 [K2, AA]
4 [K9, AA]
5 [A2, AA]
6 [A5, AA]
7 [A7, AA]
8 [A8, AA]
9 [A9, AA]