Magician
07-04-2003, 06:53 PM
$10 NL HE tournament on Pokerstars, I've got 7,200 chips, blinds are 100/200
I'm in MP with 4 5 suited.
At the table no one has less than 4,500 chips.
UTG + 1, UTG + 2, UTG + 4 limp in. I limp in as well. Folded to SB who calls. BB checks.
Flop is 5 5 7 (2 of a suit, but none of my suit).
SB checks. BB checks. UTG checks. UTG + 2 bets 200. UTG + 4 raises to 400. I re-raise to 2,200.
SB folds. BB folds. UTG folds. UTG + 2 folds. UTG + 4 moves in on me (he has about 800 more chips than I do).
I decide it's possible he has a 5 (and if he does, obviously it's likely his kicker is better) or even 77 (less likely) but that I have to take the chance and hope he has an overpair (I've seen some players online bet heavily with overpairs even with a paired board) or that he is semi-bluffing (with flush and straight draws on the board).
I call and UTG + 4 flips over K5 suited.
I think everything I did here was alright except the call at the end.
Thoughts please?
How likely is it that if there is a pair on the board, and I have a card that matches that pair, that an opponent has the other card that matches that pair?
Obviously with many opponents like in this case that is more likely but what really threw me was UTG + 4's baby raise.
I could hear the warning bells going off in my head but I called anyway.
I'm glad it's just the $10 tourney but I was making good progress and it's quite disappointing for this to happen yet again.
I'm in MP with 4 5 suited.
At the table no one has less than 4,500 chips.
UTG + 1, UTG + 2, UTG + 4 limp in. I limp in as well. Folded to SB who calls. BB checks.
Flop is 5 5 7 (2 of a suit, but none of my suit).
SB checks. BB checks. UTG checks. UTG + 2 bets 200. UTG + 4 raises to 400. I re-raise to 2,200.
SB folds. BB folds. UTG folds. UTG + 2 folds. UTG + 4 moves in on me (he has about 800 more chips than I do).
I decide it's possible he has a 5 (and if he does, obviously it's likely his kicker is better) or even 77 (less likely) but that I have to take the chance and hope he has an overpair (I've seen some players online bet heavily with overpairs even with a paired board) or that he is semi-bluffing (with flush and straight draws on the board).
I call and UTG + 4 flips over K5 suited.
I think everything I did here was alright except the call at the end.
Thoughts please?
How likely is it that if there is a pair on the board, and I have a card that matches that pair, that an opponent has the other card that matches that pair?
Obviously with many opponents like in this case that is more likely but what really threw me was UTG + 4's baby raise.
I could hear the warning bells going off in my head but I called anyway.
I'm glad it's just the $10 tourney but I was making good progress and it's quite disappointing for this to happen yet again.