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drako
07-02-2003, 04:11 PM
I had the mean # of checks w/42 remaining in a 100 player tourney while sitting at a full table when I squeezed out (KdKc)UtG. I chose to call because 2 players had $300 to $500 and 2 with heavy stacks (2X ave.) were at the table. My dream came true, a short stack raised the minimum after both heavies called. I made 2 plays, (TWO, you say!). I raised $300, to put both short stacks all in. One heavy called, one folded. The flop - Jd6d4h - I bet 2100, all in. The heavy called and beat me w/AdQd. I said to myself, "I could not have played better." I'm now doubting my initial observation. (1)What is your take on this? (2)Was I at least even money after the flop? (3)Under what conditions could my initial call be correct? Thank you,

Kurn, son of Mogh
07-02-2003, 04:45 PM
You were about a 7-5 favorite after the flop.

sdplayerb
07-02-2003, 05:10 PM
You don't detail what the blinds were.
I would say in any message like this, please include the blinds, and at least how many chips you started with.

I do like your limp, reraise. But if the blinds were 50-100, I would have reraised more. You don't want four way action. The low stacks are pretty much committed already.

With the chips in there, and that flop, you were definitely getting allin, no way not to.
And you didn't know what he had anyway.

Ignatius
07-03-2003, 07:23 AM
You don't provide enough information here (stacks, blinds), but usually, I would reraise more in this situation to cut down the implied odds of the big stacks. After all, you give your hand away by limp reraising (in this case, AQs will probably put you exactly on KK as your most likely hand), so you need to limit the implied odds of the big stacks (with better than 4:1 pot odds and 11:1 implied odds, you given them an easy call with small pairs, AXs and suited connectors)
.
Another play would have been to make it T250 so that the T500 stack would reopen the betting by moving in and then move in yourself.