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Oblivious
11-18-2005, 11:49 AM
Is a player allowed to use zero cards from his own hand to make his low? For example, say a player has T9o and the board reads 45678. Does he quarter his opponent who has KK? His opponent is also using zero cards from his hand for the low.

Obviously the rule that prevents this quartering is that a player must use at least one of his hole cards to make a low, in which case neither hand would qualify for a low and T9 would scoop.

bugstud
11-18-2005, 12:04 PM
yes you can use 0 cards

11-20-2005, 12:17 PM
In your example, the player with KK would get 1/4 of the pot for having the same low as T9.

If the board is K2487 and it was A2 vs KQ, the pot would be split.