10s on the bubble.

Seat 4: kenyanspy ($1,640 in chips)
Seat 6: 23Jokers ($7,515 in chips)
Seat 8: FC2000 [10H,10S] ($2,810 in chips)
Seat 9: Plumwild1 ($3,035 in chips)

ANTES/BLINDS
23Jokers posts blind ($150), FC2000 posts blind ($300).

PRE-FLOP
Plumwild1 bets $600, kenyanspy folds, 23Jokers folds, FC2000 bets $2,510 and is all-in, Plumwild1 calls $2,210.

FLOP [board cards 4D,2H,3H ]


TURN [board cards 4D,2H,3H,3D ]


RIVER [board cards 4D,2H,3H,3D,5S ]


SHOWDOWN
FC2000 shows [ 10H,10S ]
Plumwild1 shows [ JD,AH ]
Plumwild1 wins $5,770.

SUMMARY
Dealer: kenyanspy
Pot: $5,770
kenyanspy, loses $0
23Jokers, loses $150
FC2000, loses $2,810
Plumwild1, bets $2,810, collects $5,770, net $2,960

Bad play? I read him for AJ precisely before I made my decision. Is it a bad play to go all-in only a slight favourite? Note however I'm not trying just to get ITM but to win. Also, thiis is a 5+0.5 SnG.

[xJMPx]

Well, normally I would ask what you think his range is here. Ie., has he been raising a lot of hands, has the min raised before, will he fold to a re raise, etc? If he's been raising and min raising a lot, then I push this.

However, because his raise told you he had exactly AJ and at the $5s he's not putting this down, then it's a clear fold.

Why is it a clear fold if I'm ahead?

[zPro]

I have a hard time playing tens.
Since you are in the BB, smoothcall his minraise.

I have no problem chucking TT on an unfavorable flop.

I do like pushing PF w/ QQ-AA.

But I'd b OOP if I just called.

[xJMPx]

[ QUOTE ]
Why is it a clear fold if I'm ahead?

[/ QUOTE ]

Because you are only ahead of AJo by about 2%, which means that by pushing you are out of the money here almost half the time. (I assume that this is a typical $5 opponent who will not lay down AJ here).

That being said, looking a stack you could flat call this and push to a non-over flop, however 300 chips is still over 10% of your stack.

Like I said in a previous post, this isn't really about TT vs AJ, it about TT vs Opponent's range as there is no way you can put someone on exactly AJ. There are times he'll have AT-, KT-, or a smaller pair and you'll be in great shape. There are also times that he'll have two overs and you'll be a coinflip and times when he has an over pair and ur crushed.

You have to make a read on your opponent and considered his range based on his previous actions. If you think he could be min raising here with any Ax, Kx, small pair I push. If he's tight and needs big pairs, or paint cards, drop the hand.

I was pretty sure he didn't have an overpair and vs AJ I'm about a 56% favourite. Therefore even against a hand like AK I'd still be a favourite, though as you said, not by much. However, since I'd double up more often than not, and since I'd most likely win with a big stack, is this not still a +ev play?

[tigerite]

No, it's not. Learn about ICM.

What's ICM?

[Femto]

See the FAQ.

Put simply, if you lose this hand, you lose your buy-in. If you win this hand, the chips you are holding on to aren't necessarily worth 2xbuyin.

Here is how to set up the problem in excel. The ICM values were obtained by plugging in the stack sizes into the ICM calculator, found here (http://sharnett.bol.ucla.edu/ICM/ICM.html).
http://img476.imageshack.us/img476/743/example7di.jpg

There! Now you have the power to do all these calculations on your own.