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View Full Version : Who is supposed to win this hand...... AND HOW DID U FIGURE IT!!!


11-02-2005, 04:27 AM
While playing in a 5/10NL game the following hand occured.

PLAYER 1: JdQd
PLAYER 2: 10c10h

FLOP: 9d10d3c

Now counting the outs in this situation are easy but knowing what the outs are for is where some people get confused.
Player 1 has 15 cards that will improve his hand, but Player 2 has 7 outs that will improve his hand.

I get confused because Player 1 has 15 outs twice to IMRPOVE his hand. This percentage, 60%, is the percent that he will improve his hand; not the percentage that he will win the hand b/c he can still improve but not win.

I want to know how to figure the WINNING percentages of this hand not the IMPROVING percentages.

Maybe I am over thinking this, but someone PLEASE!!!! explain this to me. /images/graemlins/confused.gif

shant
11-02-2005, 04:30 AM
cards win %win lose %lose tie %tie EV
Qd Jd 417 42.12 573 57.88 0 0.00 0.421
Tc Th 573 57.88 417 42.12 0 0.00 0.579

pryor15
11-02-2005, 04:31 AM
http://twodimes.net/h/?z=1315734
pokenum -h jd qd - tc th -- 9d td 3c
Holdem Hi: 990 enumerated boards containing 3c Td 9d
cards win %win lose %lose tie %tie EV
Qd Jd 417 42.12 573 57.88 0 0.00 0.421
Tc Th 573 57.88 417 42.12 0 0.00 0.579

11-02-2005, 04:48 AM
Thanks for these numbers, but I have ran the same simulation. I was wondering how to figure this in my head? I am sure the equation is comlicated, but I would still like to know how to do it.

As you can see the 10 10 is favored to win 58% of the time, but using conventional methods to calculate percentages you get the OEFD is a 60% favorite.

Is there a way to get the correct odds of winning when looking at the odds of improvement of BOTH hands?? /images/graemlins/confused.gif

ihardlyknowher
11-02-2005, 05:02 AM
[ QUOTE ]
Thanks for these numbers, but I have ran the same simulation. I was wondering how to figure this in my head? I am sure the equation is comlicated, but I would still like to know how to do it.

As you can see the 10 10 is favored to win 58% of the time, but using conventional methods to calculate percentages you get the OEFD is a 60% favorite.

Is there a way to get the correct odds of winning when looking at the odds of improvement of BOTH hands?? /images/graemlins/confused.gif

[/ QUOTE ]

First off, the 3/images/graemlins/diamond.gif is not an out. In fact, if the board pairs at all, JQ cannot win. You should be able to calculate it from there.

11-02-2005, 05:09 AM
Sorry bout the 3d....you are correct there, BUT

JdQd can still win with a Str8 Flush. (dont think you noticed that)

sthief09
11-02-2005, 07:48 AM
just cut the non-straight flush outs by about 1/4 since the times you spike on the turn he'll fill up 10/46 or 7/47 on the turn

so you have 14 outs, 2 to a straight flush, so cut the other 12 by 1/4, leaving 9+2 = 11

jba
11-02-2005, 12:03 PM
read this post (http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/showflat.php?Cat=0&Number=3780135&an=0&page=0#Post 3780135) and report back

schwza
11-02-2005, 04:11 PM
here's how you do it:

if you're playing 5/10 NL, you should know oesfd is ~41% vs set.